Certified Information Systems Security Professional

Topic 1, Security Management Practices

QUESTION NO: 1

All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the

  • definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.

  • statement of roles and responsibilities

  • statement of applicability and compliance requirements.

  • statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.

Answer: D

Policies are considered the first and highest level of documentation, from which the lower level elements of standards, procedures, and guidelines flow. This order, however, does not mean that policies are more important than the lower elements. These higher-level policies, which are the more general policies and statements, should be created first in the process for strategic reasons, and then the more tactical elements can follow. -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 13

QUESTION NO: 2

A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT

  • Background

  • Scope statement

  • Audit requirements

  • Enforcement

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?

  • Identifies major functional areas of information.

  • Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.

  • Requires the identification of information owners.

  • Lists applications that support the business function.

Answer: A

Information security policies area high-level plans that describe the goals of the procedures.  Policies are not guidelines or standards, nor are they procedures or controls.  Policies describe security in general terms, not specifics.  They provide the blueprints for an overall security program just as a specification defines your next product  - Roberta Bragg CISSP Certification Training Guide (que) pg 206

QUESTION NO: 4

Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of

  • Encryption Security

  • Procedural Security.

  • Logical Security

  • On-line Security

Answer: B

Procedures are looked at as the lowest level in the policy chain because they are closest to the computers and provide detailed steps for configuration and installation issues. They provide the steps to actually implement the statements in the policies, standards, and guidelines...Security procedures, standards, measures, practices, and policies cover a number of different subject areas. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 44-45

QUESTION NO: 5

Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security program?

A. Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement

B. Development and implementation of an information security standards manual

C. Development of a security awareness-training program

D. Purchase of security access control software

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the development of an information security policy?

A. Information Systems

B. Human Resources

C. Business operations

D. Security administration

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7

What is the function of a corporate information security policy?

  • Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.

  • Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.

  • Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to secure them.

  • Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet business objectives.

Answer: D

Information security policies are high-level plans that describe the goals of the procedures or controls.  Policies describe security in general, not specifics.  They provide the blueprint fro an overall security program just as a specification defines your next product. - Roberta Bragg CISSP Certification Training Guide (que) pg 587

QUESTION NO: 8

Why must senior management endorse a security policy?

  • So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.

  • So that employees will follow the policy directives.

  • So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.

  • So that they can be held legally accountable.

Answer: A

This really does not a reference as it should be known. Upper management is legally accountable (up to 290 million fine). External organizations answer is not really to pertinent (however it stated that other organizations will respect a BCP and disaster recover plan). Employees need to be bound to the policy regardless of who signs it but it gives validity. Ownership is the correct answer in this statement. However, here is a reference. "Fundamentally important to any security program's success us the senior management's high-level statement of commitment to the information security policy process and a senior management's understanding of how important security controls and protections are to the enterprise's continuity. Senior management must be aware of the importance of security implementation to preserve the organization's viability (and for their own 'due care' protection) and must publicly support that process throughout the enterprise." -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 13

QUESTION NO: 9

In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?

  • Security policy

  • Enforcement guidelines

  • Acceptable use policy

  • Program manual

Answer: C

An acceptable use policy is a document that the employee signs in which the expectations, roles and responsibilities are outlined.

Issue -specific policies address specific security issues that management feels need more detailed explanation and attention to make sure a comprehensive structure is built and all employees understand how they are to comply to these security issues. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 62

QUESTION NO: 10

Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?

  • A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.

  • A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.

  • A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.

  • A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.

Answer: A

“A system-specific policy presents the management’s decisions that are closer to the actual computers, networks, applications, and data. This type of policy can provide an approved software list, which contains a list of applications that can be installed on individual workstations. This policy can describe how databases are to be protected, how computers are to be locked down, and how firewall, intrusion diction systems, and scanners are to be employed.” Pg 93 Shon Harris CISSP All-In-One Certification Exam Guide

QUESTION NO: 11

When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?

  • Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.

  • Gain management approval.

  • Seek acceptance from other departments.

  • Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12

Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?

  • Definition of management expectations.

  • Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.

  • Statement of senior executive support.

  • Definition of legal and regulatory controls.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 13

Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?

  • What is to be done.

  • When it is to be done.

  • Who is to do it.

  • Why is it to be done

Answer: C

Regulatory Security policies are mandated to the organization but it up to them to implement it.

"Regulatory - This policy is written to ensure that the organization is following standards set by a specific industry and is regulated by law.  The policy type is detailed in nature and specific to a type of industry.  This is used in financial institutions, health care facilities, and public utilities." - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 93-94

QUESTION NO: 14

Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to implement a security policy?

  • They prevent users from accessing any control function.

  • They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.

  • They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.

  • They are generally inexpensive to implement.

Answer: C

Administrative, physical, and technical controls should be utilized to achieve the management's directives. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 60

QUESTION NO: 15

Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed for information systems resources?

A. IS security specialists

B. Senior Management

C. Seniors security analysts

D. system auditors

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 16

Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?

A. definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security

B. statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security

C. definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management

D. description of specific technologies used in the field of information security

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 17

In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:

A. Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization

B. Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance

C. Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO

D. Be independent but report to the Information Systems function

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 18

Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to follow?

A. Standards

B. Guidelines

C. Procedures

D. Baselines

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19

A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:

  • Violations of security policy.

  • Attempted violations of security policy.

  • Non-violations of security policy.

  • Attempted violations of allowed actions.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 1

Network Security is a

A. Product

B. protocols

C. ever evolving process

D. quick-fix solution

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

Security is a process that is:

  • Continuous

  • Indicative

  • Examined

  • Abnormal

Answer: A

Explanation:

Security is a continuous process; as such you must closely monitor your systems on a

regular basis. Log files are usually a good way to find an indication of abnormal

activities. However some care must be exercise as to what will be logged and how the

logs are protected. Having corrupted logs is about as good as not having logs at all.

QUESTION NO: 3

What are the three fundamental principles of security?

A. Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity

B. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability

C. Integrity, availability, and accountability

D. Availability, accountability, and confidentiality

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity, availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?

A. Communications security management and techniques

B. Networks security management and techniques

C. Clients security management and techniques

D. Servers security management and techniques

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the following?

A. Confidentiality

B. integrity

C. acceptability

D. availability

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6

Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?

A. Availability

B. Acceptability

C. Confidentiality

D. Integrity

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7

Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?

  • Availability

  • Confidentiality

  • Integrity and control

  • All of the choices.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Most computer attacks only corrupt a system's security in very specific ways. For

example, certain attacks may enable a hacker to read specific files but don't allow

alteration of any system components. Another attack may allow a hacker to shut down

certain system components but doesn't allow access to any files. Despite the varied

capabilities of computer attacks, they usually result in violation of only four

different security properties: availability, confidentiality, integrity, and control.

QUESTION NO: 8

Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?

  • Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks

  • Security, information value, and threats

  • Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.

  • Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.

Answer: C

There are several small and large objectives of a security program, but the main three principles in all programs are confidentiality, integrity, and availability. These are referred to as the CIA triad. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 62

QUESTION NO: 9

An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:

A. Netware availability

B. Network availability

C. Network acceptability

D. Network accountability

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10

The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:

A. The Telecommunications and Network Security domain

B. The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain

C. The Technical communications and Network Security domain

D. The Telnet and Security domain

Answer: A

The Telecommunications, Network, and Internet Security Domain encompasses the structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures used to provide integrity, availability, authentication, and confidentiality for transmissions over private and public communications networks and media.” Pg 515 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP Exam

QUESTION NO: 11

Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?

  • Access controls

  • People

  • Management

  • Awareness programs

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12

The security planning process must define how security will be managed, who will be responsible, and

  • Who practices are reasonable and prudent for the enterprise.

  • Who will work in the security department.

  • What impact security will have on the intrinsic value of data.

  • How security measures will be tested for effectiveness.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 13

Information security is the protection of data. Information will be protected mainly based on:

  • Its sensitivity to the company.

  • Its confidentiality.

  • Its value.

  • All of the choices.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Information security is the protection of data against accidental or malicious

disclosure, modification, or destruction. Information will be protected based on its

value, confidentiality, and/or sensitivity to the company, and the risk of loss or

compromise. At a minimum, information will be update-protected so that only authorized

individuals can modify or erase the information.

QUESTION NO: 14

Organizations develop change control procedures to ensure that

  • All changes are authorized, tested, and recorded.

  • Changes are controlled by the Policy Control Board (PCB).

  • All changes are requested, scheduled, and completed on time.

  • Management is advised of changes made to systems.

Answer: A

“Change Control: Changes must be authorized, tested, and recorded. Changed systems may require re-certification and re-accreditation.” Pg 699 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 15

Within the organizational environment, the security function should report to an organizational level that

  • Has information technology oversight.

  • Has autonomy from other levels.

  • Is an external operation.

  • Provides the internal audit function.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 16

What is the MAIN purpose of a change control/management system?

  • Notify all interested parties of the completion of the change.

  • Ensure that the change meets user specifications.

  • Document the change for audit and management review.

  • Ensure the orderly processing of a change request.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 17

Which of the following is most relevant to determining the maximum effective cost of access control?

A. the value of information that is protected

B. management’s perceptions regarding data importance

C. budget planning related to base versus incremental spending.

D. the cost to replace lost data

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 18

Which one of the following is the MAIN goal of a security awareness program when addressing senior management?

  • Provide a vehicle for communicating security procedures.

  • Provide a clear understanding of potential risk and exposure.

  • Provide a forum for disclosing exposure and risk analysis.

  • Provide a forum to communicate user responsibilities.

Answer: B

Explanation:

When the Security Officer is addressing Senior Management, the focus would not be on user responsibilities, it would be on making sure the Senior Management have a clear understanding of the risk and potential liability is

Not D: Item D would be correct in a situation where Senior Management is addressing organizational staff.

QUESTION NO: 19

In developing a security awareness program, it is MOST important to

  • Understand the corporate culture and how it will affect security.

  • Understand employees preferences for information security.

  • Know what security awareness products are available.

  • Identify weakness in line management support.

Answer: A

The controls and procedures of a security program should reflect the nature of the data being processed...These different types of companies would also have very different cultures. For a security awareness program to be effective, these considerations must be understood and the program should be developed in a fashion that makes sense per environment - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 109

QUESTION NO: 20

Which of the following would be best suited to provide information during a review of the controls over the process of defining IT service levels?

A. Systems programmer

B. Legal stuff

C. Business unit manager

D. Programmer

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 21

Which of the following best explains why computerized information systems frequently fail to meet the needs of users?

A. Inadequate quality assurance (QA) tools

B. Constantly changing user needs

C. Inadequate user participation in defining the system's requirements

D. Inadequate project management.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 22

Which of the following is not a compensating measure for access violations?

A. Backups

B. Business continuity planning

C. Insurance

D. Security awareness

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 1

Risk analysis is MOST useful when applied during which phase of the system development process?

A. Project identification

B. Requirements definition

C. System construction

D. Implementation planning

Answer: A

Reference: pg 684 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 2

Which one of the following is not one of the outcomes of a vulnerability analysis?

A. Quantative loss assessment

B. Qualitative loss assessment

C. Formal approval of BCP scope and initiation document

D. Defining critical support areas

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following is not a part of risk analysis?

A. Identify risks

B. Quantify the impact of potential threats

C. Provide an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the associated countermeasures

D. Choose the best countermeasure

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

A new worm has been released on the Internet. After investigation, you have not been able to determine if you are at risk of exposure. Management is concerned as they have heard that a number of their counterparts are being affected by the worm. How could you determine if you are at risk?

  • Evaluate evolving environment.

  • Contact your anti-virus vendor.

  • Discuss threat with a peer in another organization.

  • Wait for notification from an anti-virus vendor.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

When conducting a risk assessment, which one of the following is NOT an acceptable social engineering practice?

  • Shoulder surfing

  • Misrepresentation

  • Subversion

  • Dumpster diving

Answer: A

Explanation:

Shoulder Surfing: Attackers can thwart confidentiality mechanisms by network monitoring, shoulder surfing, stealing password files, and social engineering. These topics will be address more in-depth in later chapters, but shoulder surfing is when a person looks over another person's shoulder and watches keystrokes or data as it appears on the screen. Social engineering is tricking another person into sharing confidential information by posing as an authorized individual to that information. Shon Harris: CISSP Certification pg. 63. Shoulder surfing is not social engineering.

QUESTION NO: 6

Which one of the following risk analysis terms characterizes the absence or weakness of a risk-reducing safegaurd?

  • Threat

  • Probability

  • Vulnerability

  • Loss expectancy

Answer: C

A weakness in system security procedures, system design, implementation, internal controls, and so on that could be exploited to violate system security policy. -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 927

QUESTION NO: 7

Risk is commonly expressed as a function of the

  • Systems vulnerabilities and the cost to mitigate.

  • Types of countermeasures needed and the system’s vulnerabilities.

  • Likelihood that the harm will occur and its potential impact.

  • Computer system-related assets and their costs.

Answer: C

The likelihood of a threat agent taking advantage of a vulnerability.  A risk is the loss potential, or probability, that a threat will exploit a vulnerability.  - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 937

QUESTION NO: 8

How should a risk be handled when the cost of the countermeasures outweighs the cost of the risk?

A. Reject the risk

B. Perform another risk analysis

C. Accept the risk

D. Reduce the risk

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9

Which of the following is an advantage of a qualitative over quantitative risk analysis?

  • It prioritizes the risks and identifies areas for immediate improvement in addressing the vulnerabilities.

  • It provides specific quantifiable measurements of the magnitude of the impacts

  • It makes cost-benefit analysis of recommended controls easier

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10

The absence or weakness in a system that may possibly be exploited is called a(n)?

A. Threat

B. Exposure

C. Vulnerability

D. Risk

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 11

What tool do you use to determine whether a host is vulnerable to known attacks?

  • Padded Cells

  • Vulnerability analysis

  • Honey Pots

  • IDS

Answer: B

Explanation:

Vulnerability analysis (also known as vulnerability assessment) tools test to determine

whether a network or host is vulnerable to known attacks. Vulnerability assessment

represents a special case of the intrusion detection process. The information sources

used are system state attributes and outcomes of attempted attacks. The information

sources are collected by a part of the assessment engine. The timing of analysis is

interval-based or batch-mode, and the type of analysis is misuse detection. This means

that vulnerability assessment systems are essentially batch mode misuse detectors that

operate on system state information and results of specified test routines.

QUESTION NO: 12

Which of the following statements pertaining to ethical hacking is incorrect?

A. An organization should use ethical hackers who do not sell auditing, consulting, hardware, software, firewall, hosting, and/or networking services

B. Testing should be done remotely

C. Ethical hacking should not involve writing to or modifying the target systems

D. Ethical hackers should never use tools that have potential of exploiting vulnerabilities in the organizations IT system.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 13

Why would an information security policy require that communications test equipment be controlled?

A. The equipment is susceptible to damage

B. The equipment can be used to browse information passing on a network

C. The equipment must always be available for replacement if necessary

D. The equipment can be used to reconfigure the network multiplexers

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 14

Management can expect penetration tests to provide all of the following EXCEPT

  • identification of security flaws

  • demonstration of the effects of the flaws

  • a method to correct the security flaws.

  • verification of the levels of existing infiltration resistance

Answer: C

Explanation:

Penetration testing is a set of procedures designed to test and possibly bypass security controls of a system. Its goal is to measure an organization's resistance to an attack and to uncover any weaknesses within the environment...The result of a penetration test is a report given to management describing the list of vulnerabilities that were identified and the severity of those vulnerabilities. From here, it is up to management to determine how the vulnerabilities are dealt with and what countermeasures are implemented. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 837-839

QUESTION NO: 15

Which one of the following is a characteristic of a penetration testing project?

  • The project is open-ended until all known vulnerabilities are identified.

  • The project schedule is plotted to produce a critical path.

  • The project tasks are to break into a targeted system.

  • The project plan is reviewed with the target audience.

Answer: C

“One common method to test the strength of your security measures is to perform penetration testing. Penetration testing is a vigorous attempt to break into a protected network using any means necessary.” Pg 430 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide

QUESTION NO: 16

Which one of the following is the PRIMARY objective of penetration testing?

  • Assessment

  • Correction

  • Detection

  • Protection

Answer: C

Explanation:

Its goal is to measure an organization's resistance to an attack and to uncover any weakness within the environment...The result of a penetration test is a report given to management describing the list of vulnerabilities that were identified and the severity of those vulnerabilities. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 837-839

Not A: Assessment would imply management deciding whether they can live with a given vulnerability.

QUESTION NO: 17

Open box testing, in the Flaw Hypothesis Methodology of Penetration Testing applies to the analysis of

  • Routers and firewalls

  • Host-based IDS systems

  • Network-based IDS systems

  • General purpose operating systems

Answer: D

Explanation:

Flaw Hypothesis Methodology - A system analysis and penetration technique where specifications and documentation for the system are analyzed and then flaws in the system are hypothesized. The list of hypothesized flaws is then prioritized on the basis of the estimated probability that a flaw actually exists and, assuming a flaw does exist, on the ease of exploiting it and on the extent of control or compromise it would provide. The prioritized list is used to direct the actual testing of the system. http://www.kernel.org/pub/linux/libs/security/Orange-Linux/refs/Orange/Orange0-5.html

QUESTION NO: 18

What is the FIRST step that should be considered in a penetration test?

  • The approval of change control management.

  • The development of a detailed test plan.

  • The formulation of specific management objectives.

  • The communication process among team members.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The type of penetration test depends on the organization, its security objectives, and the management's goals. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 838

QUESTION NO: 19

Penetration testing will typically include

  • Generally accepted auditing practices.

  • Review of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) digital certificate, and encryption.

  • Social engineering, configuration review, and vulnerability assessment.

  • Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) procedures.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 20

Which of the following is not a valid reason to use external penetration service firms rather than corporate resources?

A. They are more cost-effective

B. They offer a lack of corporate bias

C. They use highly talented ex-hackers

D. They insure a more complete reporting

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 21

Which of the following tools can you use to assess your networks vulnerability?

  • ISS

  • All of the choices.

  • SATAN

  • Ballista

Answer: B

Explanation:

ISS, Ballista and SATAN are all penetration tools.

QUESTION NO: 22

Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) value is derived from an algorithm of the product of annual rate of occurrence and

  • Cost of all losses expected.

  • Previous year’s actual loss.

  • Average of previous losses.

  • Single loss expectancy.

Answer: D

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) x Annualized Rate of Occurance (ARO) = ALE pg. 18 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide

QUESTION NO: 23

If your property insurance has Actual Cost Evaluation (ACV) clause your damaged property will be compensated:

A. Based on the value of the item on the date of loss

B. Based on new item for old regardless of condition of lost item

C. Based on value of item one month before loss

D. Based on value of item on the date of loss plus 10 percent

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 24

How is Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) derived from a threat?

A. ARO x (SLE – EF)

B. SLE x ARO

C. SLE/EF

D. AV x EF

Answer: B

“SLE x annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) = ALE” pg 70 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 25

Qualitative loss resulting from the business interruption does not include:

A. Loss of revenue

B. Loss of competitive advantage or market share

C. Loss of public confidence and credibility

D. Public embarrassment

Answer: A

“Another method of risk analysis is qualitative, which does not assign numbers and monetary valu8es to components and losses.” Pg 72 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 26

Which risk management methodology uses the exposure factor multiplied by the asset value to determine its outcome?

  • Annualized Loss Expectancy

  • Single Loss Expectancy

  • Annualized Rate of Occurrence

  • Information Risk Management

Answer: B

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) AN SLE is the dollar figure that is assigned to a single event.  It represents an organization's loss from a single threat and is derived from the following formula: Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) = SLE  -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 18

QUESTION NO: 27

Valuable paper insurance coverage does not cover damage to which of the following?

A. Inscribed, printed and written documents

B. Manuscripts

C. Records

D. Money and Securities

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 28

What is the window of time for recovery of information processing capabilities based on?

A. Quality of the data to be processed

B. Nature of the disaster

C. Criticality of the operations affected

D. Applications that are mainframe based

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 29

What is the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD):

A. Maximum elapsed time required to complete recovery of application data

B. Minimum elapsed time required to complete recovery of application data

C. Maximum elapsed time required to move back to primary site a major disruption

D. It is maximum delay businesses that can tolerate and still remain viable

Answer: D

“The MTD is the period of time a business function or process can remain interrupted before its ability to recover becomes questionable.” Pg 678 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP Exam

QUESTION NO: 30

A “critical application” is one that MUST

  • Remain operational for the organization to survive.

  • Be subject to continual program maintenance.

  • Undergo continual risk assessments.

  • Be constantly monitored by operations management.

Answer: A

I am assuming that I don't need to put a reference for this answer.  Yeah ok here it is but I cheated and used a earlier reference

"A BIA is performed at the beginning of disaster recovery and continuity planning to identify the areas that would suffer the greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster or disruption.  It identifies the company's critical systems needed for survival and estimates the outage time that can be tolerated by the company as a result of disaster or disruption." - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 597

QUESTION NO: 31

Which of the following questions is less likely to help in assessing physical and environmental protection?

A. Are entry codes changed periodically?

B. Are appropriate fire suppression and prevention devices installed and working?

C. Are there processes to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot read, copy, alter, or steal printed or electronic information?

D. Is physical access to data transmission lines controlled?

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 1

A common Limitation of information classification systems is the INABILITY to

  • Limit the number of classifications.

  • Generate internal labels on diskettes.

  • Declassify information when appropriate.

  • Establish information ownership.

Answer: C

I could not find a reference for this.  However I do agree that declassifying information is harder to do the classifying, but use your best judgment based on experience and knowledge.

QUESTION NO: 2

The purpose of information classification is to

  • Assign access controls.

  • Apply different protective measures.

  • Define the parameters required for security labels.

  • Ensure separation of duties.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Who should determine the appropriate access control of information?

  • Owner

  • User

  • Administrator

  • Server

Answer: A

Explanation:

All information generated, or used must have a designated owner. The owner must

determine appropriate sensitivity classifications, and access controls. The owner must

also take steps to ensure the appropriate controls for the storage, handling,

distribution, and use of the information in a secure manner.

QUESTION NO: 4

What is the main responsibility of the information owner?

A. making the determination to decide what level of classification the information requires

B. running regular backups

C. audit the users when they require access to the information

D. periodically checking the validity and accuracy for all data in the information system

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

What process determines who is trusted for a given purpose?

  • Identification

  • Authorization

  • Authentication

  • Accounting

Answer: B

Explanation:

Authorization determines who is trusted for a given purpose. More precisely, it

determines whether a particular principal, who has been authenticated as the source of

a request to do something, is trusted for that operation. Authorization may also

include controls on the time at which something can be done (e.g. only during working

hours) or the computer terminal from which it can be requested (e.g. only the one on

the system administrator desk).

QUESTION NO: 6

The intent of least privilege is to enforce the most restrictive user rights required

  • To execute system processes.

  • By their job description.

  • To execute authorized tasks.

  • By their security role.

Answer: C

Least Privilege; the security principle that requires each subject to be granted the most restrictive set of privileges needed for the performance of authorized tasks. The application of this principle limits the damage that can result from accident, error, or unauthorized. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 933

QUESTION NO: 7

What principle requires that a user be given no more privilege then necessary to perform a job?

  • Principle of aggregate privilege.

  • Principle of most privilege.

  • Principle of effective privilege.

  • Principle of least privilege.

Answer: D

Explanation:

As described at http://hissa.nist.gov/rbac/paper/node5.html, the principle of least

privilege has been described as important for meeting integrity objectives. The

principle of least privilege requires that a user be given no more privilege than

necessary to perform a job.

QUESTION NO: 8

To ensure least privilege requires that __________ is identified.

  • what the users privilege owns

  • what the users job is

  • what the users cost is

  • what the users group is

Answer: B

Explanation:

Ensuring least privilege requires identifying what the user's job is, determining the

minimum set of privileges required to perform that job, and restricting the user to a

domain with those privileges and nothing more. By denying to subjects transactions that

are not necessary for the performance of their duties, those denied privileges couldn't

be used to circumvent the organizational security policy. Although the concept of least

privilege currently exists within the context of the TCSEC, requirements restrict those

privileges of the system administrator. Through the use of RBAC, enforced minimum

privileges for general system users can be easily achieved.

QUESTION NO: 9

The concept of least privilege currently exists within the context of:

  • ISO

  • TCSEC

  • OSI

  • IEFT

Answer: B

Explanation:

Ensuring least privilege requires identifying what the user's job is, determining the

minimum set of privileges required to perform that job, and restricting the user to a

domain with those privileges and nothing more. By denying to subjects transactions that

are not necessary for the performance of their duties, those denied privileges couldn't

be used to circumvent the organizational security policy. Although the concept of least

privilege currently exists within the context of the TCSEC, requirements restrict those

privileges of the system administrator. Through the use of RBAC, enforced minimum

privileges for general system users can be easily achieved.

QUESTION NO: 10

Which of the following rules is less likely to support the concept of least privilege?

A. The number of administrative accounts should be kept to a minimum

B. Administrators should use regular accounts when performing routing operations like reading mail

C. Permissions on tools that are likely to be used by hackers should be as restrictive as possible

D. Only data to and from critical systems and applications should be allowed through the firewall

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 11

Which level of “least privilege” enables operators the right to modify data directly in it’s original location, in addition to data copied from the original location?

A. Access Change

B. Read/Write

C. Access Rewrite

D. Access modify

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 12

This is a common security issue that is extremely hard to control in large environments. It occurs when a user has more computer rights, permissions, and privileges that what is required for the tasks the user needs to fulfill. What best describes this scenario?

A. Excessive Rights

B. Excessive Access

C. Excessive Permissions

D. Excessive Privileges

Answer: D

Reference: “Excessive Privileges: This is a common security issue that is extremely hard to control in vast, complex environments. It occurs when a user has more computer rights, permissions, and privileges than what is required for the tasks she needs to fulfill.” pg 603 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 13

One method to simplify the administration of access controls is to group

  • Capabilities and privileges

  • Objects and subjects

  • Programs and transactions

  • Administrators and managers

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 14

Cryptography does not concern itself with:

A. Availability

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Authenticity

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following measures would be the BEST deterrent to the theft of corporate information from a laptop which was left in a hotel room?

A. Store all data on disks and lock them in an in-room safe

B. Remove the batteries and power supply from the laptop and store them separately from the computer

C. Install a cable lock on the laptop when it is unattended

D. Encrypt the data on the hard drive

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

To support legacy applications that rely on risky protocols (e.g,, plain text passwords), which one of the following can be implemented to mitigate the risks on a corporate network?

  • Implement strong centrally generated passwords to control use of the vulnerable applications.

  • Implement a virtual private network (VPN) with controls on workstations joining the VPN.

  • Ensure that only authorized trained users have access to workstations through physical access control.

  • Ensure audit logging is enabled on all hosts and applications with associated frequent log reviews.

Answer: B

It makes more sense to provide VPN client to workstations opposed to physically securing workstations.

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following computer crime is more often associated with insiders?

A. IP spoofing

B. Password sniffing

C. Data diddling

D. Denial of Service (DOS)

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4

The technique of skimming small amounts of money from multiple transactions is called the

  • Scavenger technique

  • Salami technique

  • Synchronous attack technique

  • Leakage technique

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?

A. Data fiddling

B. Data diddling

C. Salami techniques

D. Trojan horses

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6

What is the act of willfully changing data, using fraudulent input or removal of controls called?

  • Data diddling

  • Data contaminating

  • Data capturing

  • Data trashing

Answer: A

Data-diddling - the modification of data -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 417

QUESTION NO: 7

In the context of computer security, “scavenging” refers to searching

  • A user list to find a name.

  • Through storage to acquire information.

  • Through data for information content.

  • Through log files for trusted path information.

Answer: C

Scavenging is a form of dumpster diving performed electronically.  Online scavenging searches for useful information in the remnants of data left over after processes or tasks are completed.  This could include audit trails, logs files, memory dumps, variable settings, port mappings, and cached data. - Ed Tittle CISSP Study Guide (sybex) pg 476

QUESTION NO: 8

Which security program exists if a user accessing low-level data is able to draw conclusions about high-level information?

  • Interference

  • Inference

  • Polyinstatiation

  • Under-classification

Answer: B

Main Entry: in*fer*ence

Function: noun

Date: 1594

1 : the act or process of inferring : as a : the act of passing from one proposition, statement, or judgment considered as true to another whose truth is believed to follow from that of the former b : the act of passing from statistical sample data to generalizations (as of the value of population parameters) usually with calculated degrees of certainty

2 : something that is inferred; especially : a proposition arrived at by inference

3 : the premises and conclusion of a process of inferring

http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary

QUESTION NO: 9

Which of the following is not a form of a passive attack?

A. Scavenging

B. Data diddling

C. Shoulder surfing

D. Sniffing

Answer: B

Data diddling is an active attack opposed to a passive attack.

Reference: “Data Diddling occurs when an attacker gains access to a system and makes small, random, or incremental changes to data rather than obviously altering file contents or damaging or deleting entire files.” Pg 383 Tittel

QUESTION NO: 10

An example of an individual point of verification in a computerized application is

  • An inference check.

  • A boundary protection.

  • A sensitive transaction.

  • A check digit.

Answer: D

Checkdigit: A one-digit checksum.

Checksum: A computed value which depends on the contents of a block of data and which is transmitted or stored along with the data in order to detect corruption of the data. The receiving system recomputes the checksum based upon the received data and compares this value with the one sent with the data. If the two values are the same, the receiver has some confidence that the data was received correctly.

The checksum may be 8 bits (modulo 256 sum), 16, 32, or some other size. It is computed by summing the bytes or words of the data block ignoring overflow. The checksum may be negated so that the total of the data words plus the checksum is zero.

QUESTION NO: 11

Data inference violations can be reduced using

  • Polyinstantiation technique.

  • Rules based meditation.

  • Multi-level data classification.

  • Correct-state transformation.

Answer: A

“Polyinstantiation is the development of a detailed version of an object from another object using different values in the new object. In the database information security, this term is concerned with the same primary key for different relations at different classification levels being stored in the same database. For example, in a relational database, the same of a military unit may be classified Secret in the database and may have an identification number as the primary key. If another user at a lower classification level attempts to create a confidential entry for another military unit using the same identification number as a primary key, a rejection of this attempt would imply to the lower level user that the same identification number existed at a higher level of classification. To avoid this inference channel of information, the lower level user would be issued the same identification number for their unit and the database management system would manage this situation where the same primary key was used for different units.” Pg 352-353 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.

“As with aggregation, the best defense against inference attacks is to maintain constant vigilance over the permissions granted to individual users. Furthermore, intentional blurring of data may be used to prevent the inference of sensitive information.” – Ed Tittle CISSP Study Guide (sybex)

The other security issue is inference, which is very similar to aggregation. The inference problem happens when a subject deduces information that is restricted from data he has access to. This is seen when data at a lower security level indirectly portrays data at a higher level…This problem is usually dealt with in the development of the database by implementing content and context-dependent classification rules; this tracks the subject’s query requests and restricts patterns that represent inference.

“Polyinstantiation is a process of interactively producing more detailed versions of objects by populating variables with values or other variables”- Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 725-727

Topic 2, Security Architecture and Models

QUESTION NO: 1

What is it called when a computer uses more than one CPU in parallel to execute instructions?

A. Multiprocessing

B. Multitasking

C. Multithreading

D. Parallel running

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

What is the main purpose of undertaking a parallel run of a new system?

A. Resolve any errors in the program and file interfaces

B. Verify that the system provides required business functionality

C. Validate the operation of the new system against its predecessor

D. Provide a backup of the old system

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following provide network redundancy in a local network environment?

A. Mirroring

B. Shadowing

C. Dual backbones

D. Duplexing

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4

A server farm is an example of:

A. Server clustering

B. Redundant servers

C. Multiple servers

D. Server fault tolerance

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

In which state must a computer system operate to process input/output instructions?

  • User mode

  • Stateful inspection

  • Interprocess communication

  • Supervisor mode

Answer: D

A computer is in a supervisory state when it is executing these privileged instructions. (privileged instructions are executed by the system administrator or by an individual who is authorized to use those instructions.) . -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 254-255

QUESTION NO: 6

What should be the size of a Trusted Computer Base?

  • Small – in order to permit it to be implemented in all critical system components without using excessive resources.

  • Small – in order to facilitate the detailed analysis necessary to prove that it meets design requirements.

  • Large – in order to accommodate the implementation of future updates without incurring the time and expense of recertification.

  • Large – in order to enable it to protect the potentially large number of resources in a typical commercial system environment.

Answer: B

“It must be small enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and comprehensive manner.” Shon Harris All-In-One CISSP Certification Guide pg. 232-233.

QUESTION NO: 7

Which one of the following are examples of security and controls that would be found in a “trusted” application system?

  • Data validation and reliability

  • Correction routines and reliability

  • File integrity routines and audit trail

  • Reconciliation routines and data labels

Answer: C

I have no specific reference for this question but the major resources hammer that there needs to be methods to check the data for correctness.

QUESTION NO: 8

Which of the following is an operating system security architecture that provides flexible support for security policies?

  • OSKit

  • LOMAC

  • SE Linux

  • Flask

Answer: D

Explanation:

Flask is an operating system security architecture that provides flexible support for

security policies. The architecture was prototyped in the Fluke research operating

system. Several of the Flask interfaces and components were then ported from the Fluke

prototype to the OSKit. The Flask architecture is now being implemented in the Linux

operating system (Security-Enhanced Linux) to transfer the technology to a larger

developer and user community.

QUESTION NO: 9

Which of the following statements pertaining to the security kernel is incorrect?

A. It is made up of mechanisms that fall under the TCB and implements and enforces the reference monitor concept.

B. It must provide isolation for the processes carrying out the reference monitor concept and they must be tamperproof

C. It must be small enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and comprehensive manner

D. Is an access control concept, not an actual physical component

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10

What is a PRIMARY reason for designing the security kernel to be as small as possible?

  • The operating system cannot be easily penetrated by users.

  • Changes to the kernel are not required as frequently.

  • Due to its compactness, the kernel is easier to formally verify.

  • System performance and execution are enhanced.

Answer: C

I disagree with the original answer which was B (changes to the kernel) and think it is C (Due to its compactness).  However, use your best judgment based on knowledge and experience.  Below is why I think it is C.

"There are three main requirements of the security kernel:

It must provide isolation for the processes carrying out the reference monitor concept and they must be tamperproof.

The reference monitor must be invoked for every access attempt and must be impossible to circumvent.  Thus the reference monitor must be implemented in a complete and foolproof way.

 It must be small enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and comprehensive manner."  - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 232-233

QUESTION NO: 11

Which of the following implements the authorized access relationship between subjects and objects of a system?

  • Security model

  • Reference kernel

  • Security kernel

  • Information flow model

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12

The concept that all accesses must be meditated, protected from modification, and verifiable as correct is the concept of

  • Secure model

  • Security locking

  • Security kernel

  • Secure state

Answer: C

A security kernel is defined as the hardware, firmware, and software elements of a trusted computing base that implements the reference monitor concept. A reference monitor is a system component that enforces access controls on an object. Therefore, the reference monitor concept is an abstract machine that mediates all access of subjects to objects. The Security Kernel must:

Mediate all accesses

Be protected from modification

Be verified as correct.

-Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 262

QUESTION NO: 13

What is an error called that causes a system to be vulnerable because of the environment in which it is installed?

A. Configuration error

B. Environmental error

C. Access validation error

D. Exceptional condition handling error

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following ensures that security is not breached when a system crash or other system failure occurs?

A. trusted recovery

B. hot swappable

C. redundancy

D. secure boot

Answer: A

"Trusted Recovery

When an operating system or application crashes or freezes, it should not put the sytem in any time of secure state." Pg 762 Shon Harris: All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide

QUESTION NO: 2

What type of subsystem is an application program that operates outside the operating system and carries out functions for a group of users, maintains some common data for all users in the group, and protects the data from improper access by users in the group?

  • Prevented subsystem

  • Protected subsystem

  • File subsystem

  • Directory subsystem

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

A 'Pseudo flaw' is which of the following?

A. An apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system

B. An omission when generating Pseudo-code

C. Used for testing for bounds violations in application programming

D. A Normally generated page fault causing the system halt

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following yellow-book defined types of system recovery happens after a system fails in an uncrontrolled manner in response to a TCB or media failure and the system cannot be brought to a consistent state?

A. Recovery restart

B. System reboot

C. Emergency system restart

D. System Cold start

Answer: C

Reference: “Emergency system restart is done after a system fails in an uncontrolled manner in response to a TCB or media failure. In such cases, TCB and user objects on nonvolatile storage belonging to processes active at the time of TCB or media failure may be left in an inconsistent state. The system enters maintenance mode, recovery is performed automatically, and the system restarts with no user processes in progress after bringing up the system in a consistent state.”

QUESTION NO: 5

Which one of the following describes a reference monitor?

  • Access control concept that refers to an abstract machine that mediates all accesses to objects by subjects.

  • Audit concept that refers to monitoring and recording of all accesses to objects by subjects.

  • Identification concept that refers to the comparison of material supplied by a user with its reference profile.

  • Network control concept that distributes the authorization of subject accesses to objects.

Answer: A

A reference monitor is a system component that enforces access controls on an object. Therefore, the reference monitor concept is an abstract machine that mediates all access of subjects to objects -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 262

QUESTION NO: 6

What can best be described as an abstract machine which must mediate all access to subjects to objects?

A. A security domain

B. The reference monitor

C. The security kernel

D. The security perimeter

Answer: B

Reference: pg 882 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 7

What is the PRIMARY component of a Trusted Computer Base?

  • The computer hardware

  • The security subsystem

  • The operating system software

  • The reference monitor

Answer: D

“The security kernel is made up of hardware, software, and firmware components that fall within the TCB and implements and enforces the reference monitor concept. The security kernel mediates all access and functions between subjects and objects. The security kernel is the core of the TCB and is the most commonly used approach to building trusted computing systems. There are three main requirements of the security kernel:

• It must provide isolation for the processes carrying out the reference monitor concept, and the processes must be tamperproof.

• It must be invoked for every access attempt and must be impossible to circumvent. Thus, the security kernel must be implemented in a complete and foolproof way.

• It must be small enough to be able to be tested and verified in a complete and comprehensive manner.

These are the requirements of the reference monitor; therefore, they are the requirements of the components that provide and enforce the reference monitor concept—the security kernel.” – Shon Harris, “CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide”, 3rd Ed, p

QUESTION NO: 8

Which of the following is best defined as a mode of system termination that automatically leaves system processes and components in a secure state when a failure occurs or is detected in the system?

A. Fail proof

B. Fail soft

C. Fail safe

D. Fail resilient

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9

LOMAC uses what Access Control method to protect the integrity of processes and data?

  • Linux based EFS.

  • Low Water-Mark Mandatory Access Control.

  • Linux based NFS.

  • High Water-Mark Mandatory Access Control.

Answer: B

Explanation:

LOMAC is a security enhancement for Linux that uses Low Water-Mark Mandatory Access

Control to protect the integrity of processes and data from viruses, Trojan horses,

malicious remote users and compromised root daemons. LOMAC is implemented as a loadable

kernel module - no kernel recompilations or changes to existing applications are

required. Although not all the planned features are currently implemented, it presently

provides sufficient protection to thwart script-kiddies, and is stable enough for

everyday use.

QUESTION NO: 10

On Linux, LOMAC is implemented as:

  • Virtual addresses

  • Registers

  • Kernel built in functions

  • Loadable kernel module

Answer: D

Explanation:

LOMAC is a security enhancement for Linux that uses Low Water-Mark Mandatory Access

Control to protect the integrity of processes and data from viruses, Trojan horses,

malicious remote users and compromised root daemons. LOMAC is implemented as a loadable

kernel module - no kernel recompilations or changes to existing applications are

required. Although not all the planned features are currently implemented, it presently

provides sufficient protection to thwart script-kiddies, and is stable enough for

everyday use.

"Security Kernel - The hardware, firmware, and software elements of a trusted computing base (TCB) that implements the reference monitor concept.  It must mediate all accesses between subjects and objects, be protected from modification, and be verifiable as correct."  - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 355

QUESTION NO: 11

LOMAC is a security enhancement for what operating system?

  • Linux

  • Netware

  • Solaris

Answer: A

Explanation:

LOMAC is a security enhancement for Linux that uses Low Water-Mark Mandatory Access

Control to protect the integrity of processes and data from viruses, Trojan horses,

malicious remote users and compromised root daemons. LOMAC is implemented as a loadable

kernel module - no kernel recompilations or changes to existing applications are

required. Although not all the planned features are currently implemented, it presently

provides sufficient protection to thwart script-kiddies, and is stable enough for

everyday use.

QUESTION NO: 12

What was introduced for circumventing difficulties in classic approaches to computer security by limiting damages produced by malicious programs?

  • Integrity-preserving

  • Reference Monitor

  • Integrity-monitoring

  • Non-Interference

Answer: B

Explanation:

"reference monitor ... mediates all access subjects have to objects ... protect the objects from unauthorized access and destructive modification" , Ibid p 273

Reference monitor is part of the TCB concept

Not D: "noninterference ... is implemented to ensure that any actions that take place at a higher security level do not affect ... actions that take place at a lower level", Harris, 3rd Ed, p 290.

It is part of the information flow model.

QUESTION NO: 13

A feature deliberately implemented in an operating system as a trap for intruders is called a:

  • Trap door

  • Trojan horse

  • Pseudo flaw

  • Logic bomb

Answer: C

"An apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system program as a trap for intruders." As defined by the Aqua Book NCSC-TG-004 a pseudo-flaw is an apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system program as a trap for intruders. Answer from http://www.cccure.org

QUESTION NO: 14

Fault tolerance countermeasures are designed to combat threats to

A. an uninterruptible power supply

B. backup and retention capability

C. design reliability

D. data integrity

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 15

A 'Psuedo flaw' is which of the following?

A. An apparent loophole deliberately implanted in an operating system program as a trap for intruders

B. An omission when generating Psuedo-code

C. Used for testing for bounds violations in application programming

D. A normally generated page fault causing the system to halt

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 16

What Distributed Computing Environment (DCE) component provides a mechanism to ensure that services are made available only to properly designated parties?

  • Directory Service

  • Remote Procedure Call Service

  • Distributed File Service

  • Authentication and Control Service

Answer: A

A directory service has a hierarchical database of users, computers, printers, resources, and attributes of each.  The directory is mainly used for lookup operations, which enable users to track down resources and other users...The administrator can then develop access control, security, and auditing policies that dictate who can access these objects, how the objects can be accessed, and audit each of these actions. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 436-437

QUESTION NO: 17

What can be accomplished by storing on each subject a list of rights the subject has for every object?

  • Object

  • Capabilities

  • Key ring

  • Rights

Answer: B

Explanation:

Capabilities are accomplished by storing on each subject a list of rights the subject

has for every object. This effectively gives each user a key ring. To remove access to

a particular object, every user (subject) that has access to it must be "touched". A

touch is an examination of a user's rights to that object and potentially removal of

rights. This brings back the problem of sweeping changes in access rights.

QUESTION NO: 18

In the Information Flow Model, what relates two versions of the same object?

  • Flow

  • State

  • Transformation

  • Successive points

Answer: A

Explanation:

A flow is a type of dependency that relates two versions of the same object, and thus

the transformation of one state of that object into another, at successive points in

time.

QUESTION NO: 19

What is a security requirement that is unique to Compartmented Mode Workstations (CMW)?

A. Sensitivity Labels

B. Object Labels

C. Information Labels

D. Reference Monitors

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 1

The Common Criteria (CC) represents requirements for IT security of a product or system under which distinct categories?

  • Functional and assurance

  • Protocol Profile (PP) and Security Target (ST)

  • Targets of Evaluation (TOE) and Protection Profile (PP)

  • Integrity and control

Answer: A

“Like other evaluation criteria before it, Common Criteria works to answer two basic and general questions about products being evaluated: what does it do (functionality), and how sure are you of that (assurance)?” pg 232 Shon Harris CISSP All-In-One Certification Exam Guide

QUESTION NO: 2

What are the assurance designators used in the Common Criteria (CC)?

  • EAL 1, EAL 2, EAL 3, EAL 4, EAL 5, EAL 6, and EAL 7

  • A1, B1, B2, B3, C2, C1, and D

  • E0, E1, E2, E3, E4, E5, and E6

  • AD0, AD1, AD2, AD3, AD4, AD5, and AD6

Answer: A

Original Answer was C. This is wrong in my view as the original answer confused ITSEC with the CC per the following

The Common criteria terminology for the degree of examination of the product to be tested is the Evaluation Assurance level (EAL). EALs range from EA1 (functional testing to EA7 (detailed testing and formal design verification). -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 266-267

Note that Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide uses EAL (not just EA).

EALs are combinations of assurance components. They also can be conveniently compared to TSCEC and ITSEC. Like these security evaluation criteria, EALs are scaled with from EAL1 through EAL7. Other EALs exist, but EAL 7 is the highest with international recognition. - Roberta Bragg Cissp Certification Training Guide (que) pg 368

ITSEC separately evaluates functionality and assurance, and it includes 10 functionality classes (f), eight assurance levels (q), seven levels of correctness (e), and eight basic security functions in its criteria. ). -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 266

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following uses protection profiles and security targets?

A. ITSEC

B. TCSEC

C. CTCPEC

D. International Standard 15408

Answer: D

“For historical and continuity purposes, ISO has accepted the continued use of the term “Common Criteria” (CC) within this document, while recognizing the official ISO name for the new IS 15408 is “Evaluation Criteria for Information Technology Security.” Pg. 552 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

“The Common Criteria define a Protection Profile (PP), which is an implementation-independent specification of the security requirements and protections of a product that could be built. The Common Criteria terminology for the degree of examination of the product to be tested is the Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL). EALs range from EA1 (functional testing) to EA7 (detailed testing and formal design verification). The Common Criteria TOE refers to the product to be tested. A Security Target (ST) is a listing of the security claims for a particular IT security product. Also, the Common Criteria describe an intermediate grouping of security requirement components as a package.” Pg. 266-267 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

QUESTION NO: 4

According to Common Criteria, what can be described as an intermediate combination of security requirement components?

A. Protection profile (PP)

B. Security target (ST)

C. Package

D. The Target of Evaluation (TOE)

Answer: C

“The Common Criteria define a Protection Profile (PP), which is an implementation-independent specification of the security requirements and protections of a product that should be built. The Common Criteria terminology for the degree of examination of the product to be tested is the Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL.) EALs range from EA1 (functional testing() to EA7 (detailed testing and formal design verification). The Common Criteria TOE refers to the product to be tested. A Security Target (ST) is a listing of the security claims for a particular IT security product. Also, the Common Criteria describe an intermedicate grouping of security requirement components as a package.”

Pg. 266- 267 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

QUESTION NO: 5

The Common Criteria construct which allows prospective consumers or developers to create standardized sets of security requirements to meet there needs is

  • a Protection Profile (PP).

  • a Security Target (ST).

  • an evaluation Assurance Level (EAL).

  • a Security Functionality Component Catalog (SFCC).

Answer: A

Protection Profiles: The Common Criteria uses protection profiles to evaluate products. The protection profile contains the set of security requirements, their meaning and reasoning, and the corresponding EAL rating. The profile describes the environmental assumptions, the objectives, and functional and assurance level expectations. Each relevant threat is listed along with how it is to be controlled by specific objectives. It also justifies the assurance level and requirements for the strength of each protection mechanism. The protection profile provides a means for the consumer, or others, to identify specific security needs;p this is the security problem to be conquered.

EAL: An evaluation is carried out on a product and is assigned an evaluation assurance level (EAL) The thoroughness and stringent testing increases in detailed-oriented tasks as the levels increase. The Common Criteria has seven aassurance levels. The ranges go from EAL1, where the functionality testing takes place, to EAL7,where thorough testing is performed and the system is verified.

All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide by Shon Harris pg. 262

Note:"The Common Criteria defines a Protection Profile (PP), which is an implementation-independent specification of the security requirements and protections of a product that could be built. The Common Criteria terminology for the degree of examination of the product to be tested is the Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL). EALs range from EA1 (functional testing) to EA7 (detailed testing and formal design verification). The Common Criteria TOE [target of evaluation] refers to the product to be tested. A Security Target (ST) is a listing of the security claims for a particular IT security product." -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 266-267

QUESTION NO: 6

The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) was written to address which of the following that the Orange Book did not address?

A. integrity and confidentiality

B. confidentiality and availability

C. integrity and availability

D. none of the above

Answer: C

“ITSEC TCSEC (Orange Book)

E0 D

F1+E1 C1

F2+E2 C2

F3+E3 B1

F4+E4 B2

F5+E5 B3

F5+E6 A1

F6=Systems that provide high integrity

F7=Systems that provide high availability

F8=Systems that provide data integrity during communication

F9=Systems that provide high confidentiality

F10=Networks with high demands on confidentiality and integrity”

Pg. 230 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 7

Which of the following was developed by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC)?

A. TCSEC

B. ITSEC

C. DITSCAP

D. NIACAP

Answer: A

Reference: pg 129 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP Exam

QUESTION NO: 8

The Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria (TBSEC) provides

  • a basis for assessing the effectiveness of security controls built into automatic data-processing system products

  • a system analysis and penetration technique where specifications and document for the system are analyzed.

  • a formal static transition model of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules.

  • a means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of subjects and groups to which they belong.

Answer: A

TBSEC provides guidelines to be used with evaluating a security product. The TBSEC guidelines address basic security functionality and allow evaluators to measure and rate the functionality of a system and how trustworthy it is. Functionality and assurance are combined and not separated, as in criteria developed later. TCSEC guidelines can be used for evaluating vendor products or by vendors to design necessary functionality into new products. CISSP Study Guide by Tittel pg. 413.

QUESTION NO: 9

Which Orange Book evaluation level is described as “Verified Design”?

A. A1

B. B3

C. B2

D. B1

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10

Which of the following classes is defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as mandatory protection?

A. B

B. A

C. C

D. D

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 11

Which Orange Book security rating requires that formal techniques are used to prove the equivalence between the TCB specifications and the security policy model?

A. B2

B. B3

C. A1

D. A2

Answer: C

Reference: Pg 226 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 12

According to the Orange Book, which security level is the first to require trusted recovery?

A. A1

B. B2

C. B3

D. B1

Answer: C

“Trusted recovery is required only for B3 and A1 level systems.” Pg 305 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.

QUESTION NO: 13

According to the Orange Book, which security level is the first to require a system to protect against covert timing channels?

A. A1

B. B3

C. B2

D. B1

Answer: C

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trusted_Computer_System_Evaluation_Criteria

QUESTION NO: 14

Which of the following is not an Orange Book-defined operational assurance requirement?

A. System architecture

B. Trusted facility management

C. Configuration management

D. Covert channel analysis

Answer: C

Systems Integrity is a part of operational assurance opposed to life cycle assurance.

"The operational assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:

System Architecture

System integrity

Covert channel analysis

Trusted facility management

Trusted recovery

The life cycle assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:

Security testing

Design specification and testing

Configuration Management

Trusted Distribution"

Pg. 301 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.

QUESTION NO: 15

Which of the following is least likely to be found in the Orange Book?

A. Security policy

B. Documentation

C. Accountability

D. Networks and network components

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 16

According to the Orange Book, which security level is the first to require a system to support separate operator and system administrator rules?

A. A1

B. B1

C. B2

D. B3

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 17

Which of the following is not an Orange book-defined life cycle assurance requirement?

A. Security testing

B. Design specification and testing

C. Trusted distribution

D. System integrity

Answer: D

Systems Integrity is a part of operational assurance opposed to life cycle assurance.

"The operational assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:

System Architecture

System integrity

Covert channel analysis

Trusted facility management

Trusted recovery

The life cycle assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:

Security testing

Design specification and testing

Configuration Management

Trusted Distribution"

Pg. 301 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.

QUESTION NO: 18

At what Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) or Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) security level are database elements FIRST required to have security labels?

  • A1/E6

  • B1/E3

  • B2/E4

  • C2/E2

Answer: B

“B1: Labeled Security

Each data object must contain a classification label and each subject must have a clearance label. When a subject attempts to access an object, the system must compare the subject and object's security labels to ensure the requested actions are acceptable. Data leaving the system must also contain an accurate security label. The security policy is based on an informal statement and the design specifications are reviewed and verified. It is intended for environments that require systems to handle classified data.”

" pg. 224-226 Shon Harris: All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide

QUESTION NO: 19

Which of the following statements pertaining to the Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is incorrect?

A. With TCSEC, functionality and assurance are evaluated separately.

B. TCSEC provides a means to evaluate the trustworthiness of an information system

C. The Orange Book does not cover networks and communications

D. Database management systems are not covered by the TCSEC

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 20

Which of the following is the lowest TCSEC class wherein the systems must support separate operator and system administrator roles?

A. B2

B. B1

C. A1

D. A2

Answer: A

Reference: pg 129 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP Exam

QUESTION NO: 21

Which TCSEC (Orange Book) level requires the system to clearly identify functions of security administrator to perform security-related functions?

A. C2

B. B1

C. B2

D. B3

Answer: D

B1: Labeled Security

Each data object must contain a classification label and each subject must have a clearance label. When a subject attempts to access an object, the system must compare the subject and object's security labels to ensure the requested actions are acceptable. Data leaving the system must also contain an accurate security label. The security policy is based on an informal statement and the design specifications are reviewed and verified. It is intended for environments that require systems to handle classified data.

B2: Structured Protection

The security policy is clearly defined and documented, and the system design and implementation are subjected to more thorough review and testing procedures. This class requires more stringent authentication mechanisms and well-defined interfaces among layers. Subjects and devices require labels, and the system must not allow covert channels. A trusted path for logon and authentication processes must be in place, which means there are no trapdoors. A trusted path means that the subject is communicating directly with the application or operating system. There is no way to circumvent or compromise this communication channel. There is a separation of operator and administration functions within the system to provide more trusted and protected operational functionality. Distinct address spaces must be provided to isolate processes, and a covert channel analysis is conducted. This class adds assurance by adding requirements to the design of the system.

The environment that would require B2 systems could process sensitive data that require a higher degree of security. This environment would require systems that are relatively resistant to penetration and compromise.

(A trusted path means that the user can be sure that he is talking to a genuine copy of the operating system.)

B3: Security Domains

In this class, more granularity is provided in each protection mechanism, and the programming code that is not necessary to support the security policy is exclude. The design and implementation should not provide too much complexity because as the complexity of a system increases, the ability of the individuals who need to test, maintain, and configure it reduces; thus, the overall security can be threatened. The reference monitor components must be small enough to test properly and be tamperproof. The security administrator role is clearly defined, and the system must be able to recover from failures without it security level being compromised. When the system starts up and loads it operating system and components, it must be done in an initial secure state to ensure that any weakness of the system cannot be taken advantage of in this slice of time. " pg. 226 Shon Harris: All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide

QUESTION NO: 22

Which of the following statements pertaining to the trusted computing base (TCB) is false?

A. It addresses the level of security a system provides

B. It originates from the Orange Book

C. It includes hardware, firmware, and software

D. A higher TCB rating will require that details of their testing procedures and documentation be reviewed with more granularity

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 23

Which of the following is not an Orange book-defined operational assurance requirement?

A. System architecture

B. Trusted facility management

C. Configuration management

D. Covert channel analysis

Answer: C

Configuration management is a part of life cycle assurance opposed to operational assurance.

"The operational assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:

System Architecture

System integrity

Covert channel analysis

Trusted facility management

Trusted recovery

The life cycle assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:

Security testing

Design specification and testing

Configuration Management

Trusted Distribution"

Pg. 301 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.

QUESTION NO: 24

Which of the following focuses on the basic features and architecture of a system?

A. operational assurance

B. life cycle assurance

C. covert channel assurance

D. level A1

Answer: A

“The operational assurance requirements specified in the Orange Book are as follows:

System Architecture

System integrity

Covert channel analysis

Trusted facility management

Trusted recovery”

Pg. 301 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

QUESTION NO: 25

Which level(s) must protect against both covert storage and covert timing channels?

A. B3 and A1

B. B2, B3 and A1

C. A1

D. B1, B2, B3 and A1

Answer: A

Reference: pg 302 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

QUESTION NO: 26

According to the Orange Book, trusted facility management is not required for which of the following security levels?

A. B1

B. B2

C. B3

D. A1

Answer: A

B1 does not provide trusted facility management, the next highest level that does is B2.

“Trusted facility management is defined as the assignment of a specific individual to administer the security-related functions of a system. Although trusted facility management is an assurance requirement only for highly secure systems (B2, B3, and A1), many systems evaluated at lower security levels re structured to try to meet this requirement.” Pg. 302 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

QUESTION NO: 1

Which factor is critical in all systems to protect data integrity?

  • Data classification

  • Information ownership

  • Change control

  • System design

Answer: A

A Integrity is dependent on confidentiality, which relies on data classification. Also Biba integrity model relies on data classification.

“There are numerous countermeasures to ensure confidentiality against possible threats. These include the use of encryption, network traffic padding, strict access control, rigorous authentication procedures, data classification, and extensive personnel training.

Confidentiality and integrity are dependent upon each other. Without object integrity, confidentiality cannon be maintained. Other concepts, conditions, and aspects of confidentiality include sensitivity, discretion, criticality, concealment, secrecy, privacy, seclusion, and isolation.” Pg 145 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide.

“Biba Integrity Model

Integrity is usually characterized by the three following goals:

1.) The data is protected from modification by unauthorized users.

2.) The data is protected from unauthorized modification by authorized users.

3.) The data is internally and externally consistent; the data held in a database must balance internally and correspond to the external, real world situation.”

Pg. 277 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition.

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following is not a common integrity goal?

A. Prevent unauthorized users from making modifications

B. Maintain internal and external consistency

C. Prevent authorized users from making improper modifications

D. Prevent paths that could lead to inappropriate disclosure

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

Which security model introduces access to objects only through programs?

A. The Biba model

B. The Bell-LaPadula model

C. The Clark-Wilson model

D. The information flow model

Answer: C

“The Clark-Wilson model is also an integrity-protecting model. The Clark-Wilson model was developed after Biba and approaches integrity protection from a different perspective. Rather than employing a lattice structure, it uses a three-part relationship of subject/program/object known as a triple. Subjects do not have direct access to objects. Objects can be access only through programs.” Pg 347 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide

QUESTION NO: 4

To ensure that integrity is attainted through the Clark and Wilson model, certain rules are needed.These rules are:

  • Processing rules and enforcement rules.

  • Integrity-bouncing rules.

  • Certification rules and enforcement rules.

  • Certification rules and general rules.

Answer: C

Explanation:

To ensure that integrity is attained and preserved, Clark and Wilson assert, certain

integrity-monitoring and integrity-preserving rules are needed. Integrity-monitoring

rules are called certification rules, and integrity-preserving rules are called

enforcement rules.

QUESTION NO: 5

What can be defined as a formal security model for the integrity of subjects and objects in a system?

  • Biba

  • Bell LaPadulaLattice

  • Lattice

  • Info Flow

Answer: A

The Handbook of Information System Management, 1999 Edition, ISBN: 0849399742 presents

the following definition:

In studying the two properties of the Bell-LaPadula model, Biba discovered a plausible

notion of integrity, which he defined as prevention of unauthorized modification. The

resulting Biba integrity model states that maintenance of integrity requires that data

not flow from a receptacle of given integrity to a receptacle of higher integrity. For

example, if a process can write above its security level, trustworthy data could be

contaminated by the addition of less trustworthy data. SANS glossary at

http://www.sans.org/newlook/resources/glossary.htm define it as:

Formal security model for the integrity of subjects and objects in a system.

QUESTION NO: 6

The Clark Wilson model has its emphasis on:

  • Security

  • Integrity

  • Accountability

  • Confidentiality

Answer: B

Explanation:

This model attempts to capture security requirements of commercial applications.

'Military' and 'Commercial' are shorthand for different ways of using computers. This

model has emphasis on integrity:

Internal consistency: properties of the internal state of a system

External consistency: relation of the internal state of a system to the outside world

QUESTION NO: 7

What does * (star) integrity axiom mean in the Biba model?

A. No read up

B. No write down

C. No read down

D. No write up

Answer: D

“Biba has two integrity axioms:

  • Simple Integrity Axiom The Simple Integrity Axiom (SI Axiom) state that a subject at a specific classification level cannot read data with a lower classification level. This is often shortened to “no read down.”

  • Integrity Axiom The * (star) Integrity Axiom (* Axiom) states that a subject at a specific classification level cannot write data to a higher classification level. This is often shortened to “no write up.”” Pg 347 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide

QUESTION NO: 8

Which access control model states that for integrity to be maintained data must not flow from a receptacle of given integrity to a receptacle of higher integrity?

  • Lattice Model

  • Bell-LaPadula Model

  • Biba Model

  • Take-Grant Model

Answer: C

If implemented and enforced properly, the Biba model prevents data from any integrity level from flowing to a higher integrity level. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 244

QUESTION NO: 9

Which one of the following is a KEY responsibility for the “Custodian of Data”?

  • Data content and backup

  • Integrity and security of data

  • Authentication of user access

  • Classification of data elements

Answer: B

Custodian - Preserves the information's CIA (chart) -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 15

QUESTION NO: 10

Which one of the following is true about information that is designated with the highest of confidentiality in a private sector organization?

  • It is limited to named individuals and creates an audit trail.

  • It is restricted to those in the department of origin for the information.

  • It is available to anyone in the organization whose work relates to the subject and requires authorization for each access.

  • It is classified only by the information security officer and restricted to those who have made formal requests for access.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 11

Related to information security, confidentiality is the opposite of which of the following?

A. closure

B. disclosure

C. disposal

D. disaster

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12

What is the main concern of the Bell-LaPadula security model?

A. Accountability

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Availability

Answer: C

“An important thing to note is that the Bell-LaPadula model was developed to make sure secrets stay secret; thus, it provides and addresses confidentiality only. This model does not address integrity of the data the system maintains – only who can and cannot access the data.” Pg 214 Shon Harris: All-in-One CISSP Certification

QUESTION NO: 13

Which of the following are the limitations of the Bell-LaPadula model?

  • No policies for changing access data control.

  • All of the choices.

  • Contains covert channels.

  • Static in nature.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Limitations of the BLP model:

Have no policies for changing access data control

Intended for systems with static security levels

Contains covert channels: a low subject can detect the existence of a high object when

it is denied access. Sometimes it is not enough to hide the content of an object; also

their existence may have to be hidden.

Restricted to confidentiality

QUESTION NO: 14

Which of the following is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access control?

  • Clarke Wilson

  • Bell-LaPadula

  • Chinese Wall

  • Lattice

Answer: B

Explanation:

Bell-LaPadula is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access

control. Access permissions are defined through an Access Control matrix and through a

partial ordering of security levels. Security policies prevent information flowing

downwards from a high security level to a low security level. BLP only considers the

information flow that occurs when a subject observes or alters an object.

QUESTION NO: 15

With the BLP model, access permissions are defined through:

  • Filter rules

  • Security labels

  • Access Control matrix

  • Profiles

Answer: C

Explanation:

Bell-LaPadula is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access

control. Access permissions are defined through an Access Control matrix and through a

partial ordering of security levels. Security policies prevent information flowing

downwards from a high security level to a low security level. BLP only considers the

information flow that occurs when a subject observes or alters an object.

QUESTION NO: 16

With the BLP model, security policies prevent information flowing downwards from a:

  • Low security level

  • High security level

  • Medium security level

  • Neutral security level

Answer: B

Explanation:

Bell-LaPadula is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access

control. Access permissions are defined through an Access Control matrix and through a

partial ordering of security levels. Security policies prevent information flowing

downwards from a high security level to a low security level. BLP only considers the

information flow that occurs when a subject observes or alters an object.

QUESTION NO: 17

When will BLP consider the information flow that occurs?

  • When a subject alters on object.

  • When a subject accesses an object.

  • When a subject observer is an object.

  • All of the choices.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Bell-LaPadula is a state machine model capturing confidentiality aspects of access

control. Access permissions are defined through an Access Control matrix and through a

partial ordering of security levels. Security policies prevent information flowing

downwards from a high security level to a low security level. BLP only considers the

information flow that occurs when a subject observes or alters an object.

QUESTION NO: 18

In the Bell-LaPadula model, the Star-property is also called:

A. The simple security property

B. The confidentiality property

C. The confinement property

D. The tranquility property

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 19

The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed MAINLY to deal with:

  • Affinity

  • None of the choices.

  • Confidentiality

  • Integrity

Answer: C

Explanation:

Page 349 of Harris’ 5 th edition references Bell-LaPadula model in the Lattice Based example. Bell-LaPadula is Confidentiality focused, not integrity focused.

QUESTION NO: 20

With the Lattice Based Access Control model, a security class is also called a:

  • Control factor

  • Security label

  • Mandatory number

  • Serial ID

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with information

flow in computer systems. Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to

some extent it also applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around

1970 and was driven mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems

is concerned with flow from one security class (also called security label) to another.

These controls are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an

object can be a directory or file.

QUESTION NO: 21

Under the Lattice Based Access Control model, a container of information is a(n):

  • Object

  • Model

  • Label

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with information

flow in computer systems. Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to

some extent it also applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around

1970 and was driven mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems

is concerned with flow from one security class (also called security label) to another.

These controls are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an

object can be a directory or file.

QUESTION NO: 22

What Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with information flow in computer systems?

  • Lattice Based

  • Integrity Based

  • Flow Based

  • Area Based

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with information

flow in computer systems. Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to

some extent it also applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around

1970 and was driven mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems

is concerned with flow from one security class (also called security label) to another.

These controls are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an

object can be a directory or file.

QUESTION NO: 23

The Lattice Based Access Control model was developed to deal mainly with ___________ in computer systems.

  • Access control

  • Information flow

  • Message routes

  • Encryption

Answer: B

Explanation:

Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to some extent it also

applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around 1970 and was driven

mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems is concerned with

flow from one security class (also called security label) to another. These controls

are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an object can be a

directory or file.

QUESTION NO: 24

In the Lattice Based Access Control model, controls are applied to:

  • Scripts

  • Objects

  • Models

  • Factors

Answer: B

Explanation:

Information flow is clearly central to confidentiality but to some extent it also

applies to integrity. The basic work in this area was done around 1970 and was driven

mostly by the defense sector. Information flow in computer systems is concerned with

flow from one security class (also called security label) to another. These controls

are applied to objects. An object is a container of information, and an object can be a

directory or file.

QUESTION NO: 25

Access control techniques do not include:

A. Rule-Based Access Controls

B. Role-Based Access Controls

C. Mandatory Access Controls

D. Random Number Based Access Control

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 26

An access control policy for a bank teller is an example of the implementation of which of the following?

A. rule-based policy

B. identity-based policy

C. user-based policy

D. role-based policy

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 27

Access control techniques do not include which of the following choices?

A. Relevant Access Controls

B. Discretionary Access Controls

C. Mandatory Access Controls

D. Lattice Based Access Controls

Answer: A

“Mandatory Access Control. The authorization of a subject’s access to an object depends upon labels, which indicate the subject’s clearance, and the classification or sensitivity of the object.”

“Rule-based access control is a type of mandatory access control because rules determine this access, rather than the identity of the subjects and objects alone.”

“Discretionary Access Control. The subject has authority, within certain limitations, to specify what objects are accessible.”

“When a user with certain limitations has the right to alter the access control to certain objects, this is termed as user-directed discretionary access control.”

“An identity-based access control is a type of a discretionary access control based on an individual’s identity.”

“In some instances, a hybrid approach is used, which combines the features of user-based and identity-based discretionary access control.”

“Non-discretionary Access Control. A Central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy.”

“The access controls might be based on the individuals role in the organization (role-based) or the subject’s responsibilities and duties (task-based).”

“[Lattice-based] In this type of control, a lattice model is applied.

“Access control can be characterized as context-dependent or content dependent.”

Pg. 45-46 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

QUESTION NO: 28

What is called a type of access control where a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects, based on the organizational security policy?

A. Mandatory Access Control

B. Discretionary Access Control

C. Non-discretionary Access Control

D. Rule-based access control

Answer: C

Non-Discretionary Access Control. A central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on the individual’s role in the organization (role-based) or the subject’s responsibilities and duties (task-based).

Pg. 33 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide.

QUESTION NO: 29

In non-discretionary access control, a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on:

A. the society’s role in the organization

B. the individual's role in the organization

C. the group-dynamics as they relate to the individual's role in the organization

D. the group-dynamics as they relate to the master-slave role in the organization

Answer: B

Non-Discretionary Access Control. A central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on the individual’s role in the organization (role-based) or the subject’s responsibilities and duties (task-based).

Pg. 33 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide.

QUESTION NO: 30

This is a common security issue that is extremely hard to control in large environments. It occurs when a user has more computer rights, permissions, and privileges than what is required for the tasks the user needs to fulfill. What best describes this scenario?

A. Excessive Rights

B. Excessive Access

C. Excessive Permissions

D. Excessive Privileges

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 31

The default level of security established for access controls should be

  • All access

  • Update access

  • Read access

  • No access

Answer: D

“Need to Know and the Principle of Least Privilege are two standard axioms of high-security environments. A user must have a need-to-know to gain access to data or resources. Even if that ser has an equal or greater security classification than the requested information, if they do not have a need-to-know, they are denied access. A need-to-know is the requirement to have access to, knowledge about, or possession of data or a resource to perform specific work tasks. The principle of least privilege is the notion that users should be granted the least amount of access to the secure environment as possible for them to be able to complete their work tasks.” Pg 399 Tittel: CISSP Study Guide

QUESTION NO: 32

Access Control techniques do not include which of the following choices?

A. Relevant Access Controls

B. Discretionary Access Control

C. Mandatory Access Control

D. Lattice Based Access Controls

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 33

Which of the following is a type of mandatory access control?

A. Rule-based access control

B. Role-based access control

C. User-directed access control

D. Lattice-based access control

Answer: A

Reference: pg 46 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

QUESTION NO: 34

A central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy is called:

A. Mandatory Access Control

B. Discretionary Access Control

C. Non-Discretionary Access Control

D. Rule-based Access Control

Answer:C

Reference: pg 46 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition

QUESTION NO: 35

What can be defined as a table of subjects and objects indicating what actions individual subjects can take upon individual objects?

A. A capacity table

B. An access control list

C. An access control matrix

D. A capability table

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 36

What access control methodology facilitates frequent changes to data permissions?

  • Rule-based

  • List-based

  • Role-based

  • Ticket-based

Answer: A

RBAC - This type of model provides access to resources based on the role the users holds within the company or the tasks that user has been assigned. - Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 937

Rule-based access control is a type of mandatory access control because rules determine this access (such as the correspondence of clearances labels to classification labels), rather than the identity of the subjects and objects alone.  . -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 45-46

QUESTION NO: 37

Which of the following is a means of restricting access to objects based on the identity of the subject to which they belong?

  • Mandatory access control

  • Group access control

  • Discretionary access control

  • User access control

Answer: C

The question does not ask about the identity of the accessing subject, the question refers to the subject to which the object belongs (ie the owner).

The owner setting the access rights is the definition of DAC.

"DAC systems grant or deny access based on the identity of the subject. ...." Harris, 3rd Ed, p 163

QUESTION NO: 38

What is the method of coordinating access to resources based on the listing of permitted IP addresses?

  • MAC

  • ACL

  • DAC

  • None of the choices.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The definition of ACL: A method of coordinating access to resources based on the

listing of permitted (or denied) users, network addresses or groups for each resource.

QUESTION NO: 39

What control is based on a specific profile for each user?

  • Lattice based access control.

  • Directory based access control.

  • Rule based access control.

  • ID based access control.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The correct answer should be ID based access control. Rule based isn’t necessarily identity based.

QUESTION NO: 40

In a very large environment, which of the following is an administrative burden?

  • Rule based access control.

  • Directory based access control.

  • Lattice based access control

  • ID bases access control

Answer: D

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