Information Storage and Management Exam Version 2
QUESTION NO: 1
Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while?
QUESTION NO: 2
What does the area ID of the FC address identify?
A. Group of ports within a switch
B. An individual port within a fabric
C. Location of the name server within the fabric
D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric
QUESTION NO: 3
An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?
A. Source devices must be healthy
B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts
QUESTION NO: 4
Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet communications?
A. Converged network adapter
B. TCP Offload Engine NIC
C. FCIP bridging adapter
D. iSCSI host bus adapter
QUESTION NO: 5
What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?
A. Defining cloud service attributes
B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers
C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services
QUESTION NO: 6
Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?
D. Data Domain
QUESTION NO: 7
What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address
QUESTION NO: 8
Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?
QUESTION NO: 9
Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was received?
QUESTION NO: 10
What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?
A. Area on which the read/write head rests
B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk
QUESTION NO: 11
What is a characteristic of unified storage?
A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface
B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified management interface
C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution
D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface
QUESTION NO: 12
What defines the time taken to position the read/write head across the platter with a radial movement in a disk drive?
A. Seek time
B. Rotational latency
C. Data transfer time
D. Service time
QUESTION NO: 13
What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer's IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
QUESTION NO: 14
Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someoneâ€™s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
QUESTION NO: 15
What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
QUESTION NO: 16
What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
QUESTION NO: 17
What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
QUESTION NO: 18
Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
QUESTION NO: 19
Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated
B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a â€œGoldâ€ copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
QUESTION NO: 20
Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?
C. Self-service requesting
QUESTION NO: 21
In the context of protecting the FC SAN infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructure integrity?
A. Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization
B. Implementing iSNS discovery domains
C. Implementing an FSPF algorithm to create a virtual SAN
D. Not permitting physical segmentation of nodes
QUESTION NO: 22
What is true about parity-based RAID?
A. Parity is updated each time a write is performed
B. Parity is read each time a read is performed
C. Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe
D. Parity is updated each time when both reads and writes are performed
QUESTION NO: 23
What is an accurate statement about a gateway NAS solution?
A. NAS head and storage are managed independently
B. Consolidates file-level and block-level access on a single storage platform
C. Provides integrated management for both NAS head and storage
D. Creates a single file system that runs on all NAS heads
QUESTION NO: 24
What is prevented using RAID technology?
A. Data loss
B. Host Bus Adapter failures
C. Security breach
D. Switch failure
QUESTION NO: 25
Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommitted cached data when there is a power failure?
A. Cache vaulting
B. Cache mirroring
C. Low watermarking
QUESTION NO: 26
What are the three elements of the risk triad from an information security perspective?
A. Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities
B. Actions, threats, and vulnerabilities
C. Assets, threats, and countermeasures
D. Assets, countermeasures, and vulnerabilities
QUESTION NO: 27
Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to request resources using a service catalog through a web-based user interface?
A. On-demand self-service
B. Broad network access
C. Metered services
D. Catalog management
QUESTION NO: 28
What is a purpose for distributing Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) in a fabric?
A. Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric
B. Stops or slows down transmissions from other switches in the fabric
C. Distributes configuration values and congestion notifications across the fabric
D. Exchanges requests for change notifications among distributed management servers
QUESTION NO: 29
In the Fibre Channel protocol, what are functions of the FC-1 layer?
A. Encoding and decoding
B. Routing and flow control
C. Interface mapping and flow control
D. Transmission of raw bits and encoding
QUESTION NO: 30
What is a security implementation in NAS environments?
B. Port binding
C. S_ID Lockdown
QUESTION NO: 31
In an FC SAN environment, what is a benefit of zoning?
A. Restricts RSCN traffic
B. Isolates fabric services
C. Enables online volume expansion
D. Provides non-disruptive data migration
QUESTION NO: 32
What is the RAID 5 write penalty for random, small write I/Os?
QUESTION NO: 33
Which EMC block-level storage virtualization product enables hosts from two different data centers to access a single copy of data?
QUESTION NO: 34
Which EMC product enables VNX array-based remote replication from a primary volume to a secondary volume residing on a different VNX storage system?
QUESTION NO: 35
A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings.
Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?
QUESTION NO: 36
What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
B. Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster
C. Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
D. Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
QUESTION NO: 37
In a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment, what is a function of system access control lists (SACL)?
A. Determines object access information that needs to be audited
B. Provides information on system access troubleshooting
C. Uniquely identifies objects, users, and user groups
D. Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound traffic
QUESTION NO: 38
What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other remote replication methods?
A. Near zero RPO
B. Near zero RTO
C. No distance limitation
D. Faster response time
QUESTION NO: 39
What is an advantage of sub-LUN tiering?
A. Improved performance
B. Enhanced reliability and availability
C. Dynamic expansion of storage capacity
D. Faster provisioning of thin LUNs
QUESTION NO: 40
Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications (RSCNs) to attached node ports?
A. Fabric controller
B. Name server
C. Fabric login server
D. Management server